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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Certification Exam is designed for professionals who work in the field of risk management and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is highly valued in the industry and is recognized globally. CRISC exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge, skills, and abilities in the areas of risk identification, assessment, response, and control. CRISC exam is rigorous and requires a significant amount of preparation and study to pass.
To be eligible to take the exam, candidates must have at least three years of experience in the fields of risk management or information systems control, as well as a solid understanding of the principles and practices of these areas. Additionally, candidates must meet certain educational requirements and agree to abide by the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics.
Information Technology Risk Assessment: 28%
- Analyze the outcomes of risk and control reviews to evaluate possible gaps between present and preferred states of an IT risk environment;
- Establish the present state of on-going controls and review their efficiency for the mitigation of IT risk;
- Ensure that the ownership of risk is assigned at the relevant level to put accountability;
NEW QUESTION # 340
The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:
- A. experiencing hardware failures
- B. exceeding availability thresholds
- C. exceeding current patching standards.
- D. meeting the baseline for hardening.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers meeting the baseline for hardening. Hardening is the process of applying security configurations and settings to servers to reduce their attack surface and vulnerability. A baseline is a standard or benchmark that defines the minimum level of security required for servers. By measuring the number of servers that meet the baseline, the organization can assess the effectiveness of its hardening efforts and identify any gaps or deviations. The other metrics, such as exceeding availability thresholds, experiencing hardware failures, or exceeding current patching standards, are not directly related to the security configuration of servers, but rather to their performance, reliability, or maintenance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 2-25.
NEW QUESTION # 341
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
- A. Threat event
- B. Loss event
- C. Vulnerability event
- D. Technical event
Answer: B
Explanation:
The result of a realized risk scenario is a loss event. A loss event is an occurrence that causes harm or damage to the organization's assets, resources, or reputation. A loss event is also known as an incident or a breach. A loss event is the outcome of a risk scenario, which is a description of a possible situation or event that could affect the organization's objectives or operations. A risk scenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential source of harm or damage. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that could be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. A risk scenario is realized when a threat exploits a vulnerability and causes an impact, which results in a loss event. The other options are not the result of a realized risk scenario, although they may be part of a risk scenario. A technical event, a threat event, and a vulnerability event are all types of events that could occur in a risk scenario, but they are not the final outcome or result of a risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
NEW QUESTION # 342
An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization's record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on the organization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?
- A. Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.
- B. Use a secure channel to transmit the files.
- C. Obfuscate the customers' personal information.
- D. Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Obfuscating customer information ensures data privacy by rendering sensitive details unintelligible to unauthorized parties, reducing the risk of exposure during transit or processing. This aligns with Data Protection and Privacy Regulations under risk management frameworks, emphasizing safeguarding personally identifiable information.
NEW QUESTION # 343
A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following
is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?
- A. Notification of sub-contracting arrangements
- B. Confidentiality of customer data
- C. Monitoring of service costs
- D. Provision of internal audit reports
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST critical requirement to include in the contract is the confidentiality of customer data, because it is
a legal and ethical obligation of the bank to protect the privacy and security of its customers' personal and
financial information. Outsourcing the statement printing function to an external service provider exposes the
customer data to potential unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the service provider or its sub-
contractors. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for the handling, storage, and
disposal of the customer data, as well as the penalties for any breach of confidentiality. The other options are
not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, because:
Option A: Monitoring of service costs is an important requirement to ensure that the service provider delivers
the statement printing function within the agreed budget and scope, but it is not as critical as the
confidentiality of customer data, which has legal and reputational implications for the bank.
Option B: Provision of internal audit reports is a useful requirement to verify that the service provider
complies with the internal and external standards and regulations for the statement printing function, but it is
not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is a core value of the bank and its customers.
Option C: Notification of sub-contracting arrangements is a relevant requirement to ensure that the service
provider does not delegate the statement printing function to another party without the bank's consent and
oversight, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is the primary responsibility of
the bank and its service provider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th
Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 197.
NEW QUESTION # 344
A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?
- A. Articulating senior management's intent
- B. Influencing the risk culture of the organization
- C. Analyzing the organization's risk appetite
- D. Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders
Answer: D
Explanation:
Purpose of a Risk Register:
A risk register consolidates all identified risks, their status, and mitigation actions in one place. It serves as a tool for tracking and managing risks systematically.
Facilitating Risk Management Functions:
By documenting risk scenarios, a risk register provides a comprehensive view of potential threats and their impact on the organization.
It enables effective communication and review of these scenarios with stakeholders, ensuring that all relevant parties are aware of and understand the risks.
Engaging Stakeholders:
Reviewing the risk register with stakeholders helps in validating the risks, assessing their impact, and determining appropriate responses.
It fosters collaboration and ensures that risk management activities are aligned with the stakeholders' expectations and the organization's objectives.
Comparing Other Functions:
Analyzing Risk Appetite:While important, this is not the primary function of a risk register.
Influencing Risk Culture:The risk register contributes to risk culture but is primarily a tracking and communication tool.
Articulating Senior Management's Intent:This is more related to policy and strategy documents, whereas the risk register is a practical tool for managing specific risks.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of the risk register in consolidating risk information and facilitating stakeholder engagement (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.6 Risk Register) .
NEW QUESTION # 345
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
- A. Role-based access controls
- B. Entitlement reviews
- C. Security log monitoring
- D. User provisioning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 346
The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to
articulate the reduction in:
- A. inherent risk.
- B. residual risk.
- C. vulnerabilities.
- D. detected incidents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk responses, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or
acceptance. It represents the level of exposure that the organisation is willing to tolerate or assume. Residual
risk should be aligned with the organisation's risk appetite and risk tolerance, which are determined by senior
management. Therefore, the best way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control
implementation would be to articulate the reduction in residual risk that the control would achieve. This
would demonstrate how the control would help the organisation meet its riskobjectives and reduce the
likelihood or impact of adverse events. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1,
Section 1.3.2, page 25.
NEW QUESTION # 347
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?
- A. Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software
- B. Frequency of anti-virus software updates
- C. Number of false positives detected over a period of time
- D. Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 348
A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?
- A. update the risk response plan.
- B. Inform senior management.
- C. Record the risk as accepted m the risk register.
- D. Obtain the risk owner's approval.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 349
Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation
strategy for an organization?
- A. Risk tolerance
- B. Cyber insurance
- C. Known vulnerabilities
- D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk tolerance defines the boundaries for acceptable risk levels and directly impacts decision-making for
mitigation strategies. A well-defined tolerance helps prioritize actions and allocate resources effectively,
emphasizing its central role in theRisk Responsedomain.
NEW QUESTION # 350
To which level the risk should be reduced to accomplish the objective of risk management?
- A. To a level that an organization can accept
- B. To a level where ARO equals SLE
- C. To a level that an organization can mitigate
- D. To a level where ALE is lower than SLE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
The main objective of risk management is to reduce risk to a level that the organization or company will accept, as the risk can never be completely eliminated.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: There are no such concepts existing in manipulating risk level.
D: Risk mitigation involves identification, planning, and conduct of actions for reducing risk. Because the elimination of all risk is usually impractical or close to impossible, it is aimed at reducing risk to an acceptable level with minimal adverse impact on the organization's resources and mission.
NEW QUESTION # 351
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
- A. Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.
- B. Review the organization's data inventory.
- C. Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.
- D. Identify staff who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Review Assignments of Data Ownership for Key Assets:
Data Ownership: Ensuring that data ownership is clearly assigned helps establish accountability for data protection. Data owners are responsible for the classification, management, and protection of data.
Baseline Understanding: Reviewing data ownership assignments provides a baseline understanding of who is responsible for sensitive data and ensures that the responsibilities are clearly defined and understood.
Compliance and Control: Proper data ownership ensures that controls are in place and that there is compliance with data protection policies and regulations.
Comparison with Other Options:
Identify Staff Who Have Access to Sensitive Data: This is important but should follow the establishment of clear data ownership to ensure that access controls are appropriately applied.
Identify Recent and Historical Incidents Involving Data Loss: Reviewing incidents helps understand past issues but does not address current data ownership and accountability.
Review the Organization's Data Inventory: While important, a data inventory review is part of understanding data ownership and control but should not be the first step.
Best Practices:
Clear Documentation: Ensure that data ownership is clearly documented and communicated across the organization.
Regular Reviews: Conduct regular reviews of data ownership assignments to ensure they remain accurate and up-to-date.
Training and Awareness: Provide training to data owners on their roles and responsibilities regarding data protection and risk management.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Highlights the importance of data ownership in managing and protecting sensitive information within an organization.
ISACA Guidelines: Recommend establishing clear data ownership and accountability as a foundational step in effective data risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 352
As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:
- A. understand the organizational risk profile.
- B. communicate the enterprise risk management policy.
- C. stay current with existing control status.
- D. align IT processes with business objectives.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An IT risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify, analyze, and track the potential risks related to the use of information technology within an organization. An IT risk register helps management to understand the organizational risk profile, which is a comprehensive and structured representation of the risks that the organization faces. The risk profile helps the organization to understand its risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance, and to align its risk management strategy with its business objectives and context. The risk register is an essential input for creating and updating the risk profile, as it provides the data and analysis of the risks that need to be prioritized and addressed12. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either not directly shown or derived from the IT risk register. Aligning IT processes with business objectives is a goal of IT governance, which may be influenced by the IT risk register, but not solely determined by it. Communicating the enterprise risk management policy is a responsibility of the senior management and the board of directors, which may use the IT risk register as a reference, but not as the main source. Staying current with existing control status is a function of IT audit and assurance, which may rely on the IT risk register as a basis, but not as the only evidence. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager's Guide with Examples [2023] * Asana; Complete Guide to IT Risk Management | CompTIA
NEW QUESTION # 353
Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?
- A. The risk response is accounted for in the budget.
- B. The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.
- C. The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.
- D. The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 354
Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?
- A. Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted
- B. Granting access based on least privilege
- C. Revoking access for users changing roles
- D. Monitoring user activity using security logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege is a key concept in information security that aims to provide users with the minimum level of access-or permissions-necessary to perform their job functions. By ensuring that users only have the access they need, organizations can significantly reduce the risk associated with excessive access by authorized users.
* Understanding Least Privilege
* The principle of least privilege restricts access rights for users to the bare minimum permissions they need to perform their work. This minimizes the potential damage from accidents or malicious activities.
* Least privilege should be applied to all user accounts, including administrative and service accounts.
* Implementation
* Implementing least privilege involves a detailed analysis of job functions and the necessary access required for each role.
* Regularly review and update access permissions to ensure they remain aligned with current job responsibilities and organizational needs.
* Mitigating Risk
* By limiting access to only what is necessary, organizations can prevent users from having permissions that could be exploited, intentionally or unintentionally, to cause harm.
* This also includes revoking unnecessary privileges when users change roles or no longer need access.
* Comparison with Other Options
* A. Monitoring user activity using security logs: While monitoring can detect inappropriate activity, it does not prevent it.
* B. Revoking access for users changing roles: This is a necessary practice but does not address the initial allocation of excessive privileges.
* D. Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted: Periodic reviews are important but are reactive rather than proactive.
References
* Sybex-CISSP-Official-Study-Guide-9-Edition.pdf, p. 641, discussing the principle of least privilege and its implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 355
Which of the following statements is true for risk analysis?
- A. Risk analysis should assume an equal degree of protection for all assets.
- B. Risk analysis should limit the scope to a benchmark of similar companies
- C. Risk analysis should address the potential size and likelihood of loss.
- D. Risk analysis should give more weight to the likelihood than the size of loss.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A risk analysis deals with the potential size and likelihood of loss. A risk analysis involves identifying the most probable threats to an organization and analyzing the related vulnerabilities of the organization to these threats. A risk from an organizational perspective consists of:
Threats to various processes of organization.
Threats to physical and information assets.
Likelihood and frequency of occurrence from threat.
Impact on assets from threat and vulnerability.
Risk analysis allows the auditor to do the following tasks :
Identify threats and vulnerabilities to the enterprise and its information system.
Provide information for evaluation of controls in audit planning.
Aids in determining audit objectives.
Supporting decision based on risks.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Assuming equal degree of protection would only be rational in the rare event that all the assets are similar in sensitivity and criticality. Hence this is not practiced in risk analysis.
B: Since the likelihood determines the size of the loss, hence both elements must be considered in the calculation.
C: A risk analysis would not normally consider the benchmark of similar companies as providing relevant information other than for comparison purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 356
It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:
- A. communicated to business management
- B. approved by the business owner.
- C. initiated by business users.
- D. tested by business owners.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production is after they are approved by the business owner, who is the individual or group that is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements that are supported or affected by the changes. The approval by the business owner ensures that the changes are aligned and compatible with the business objectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
The other options are not the most appropriate times for changes to be promoted to production, because they do not ensure that the changes are aligned and compatible with the business objectives and requirements, and that they provide the expected or desired outcomes or benefits for the business.
Communicating the changes to business management means informing or reporting the changes to the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the business activities or functions. Communicating the changes to business management is important for ensuring the awareness and support of the business management, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicatewhether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Testing the changes by business owners means verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the changes, using the input and feedback from the business owners. Testing the changes by business owners is important for ensuring the quality and performance of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements.
Initiating the changes by business users means requesting or proposing the changes by the end users or customers that interact with the information systems and resources that are affected by the changes. Initiating the changes by business users is important for ensuring the relevance and appropriateness of the changes, but it is not the most appropriate time for changes to be promoted to production, because it does not indicate whether the changes are approved or authorized by the business owner, who is accountable and responsible for the business objectives and requirements. References = ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63 ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 194 CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 357
An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing sim-ulation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?
- A. Preventive
- B. Detective
- C. Compensating
- D. Deterrent
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Cybersecurity Awareness Program:
* Phishing Simulations: These exercises are designed to test employees' ability to recognize and respond to phishing attempts. They serve as a deterrent by raising awareness and making employees more vigilant.
* Deterrent Controls:
* Definition: Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential attackers or risky behavior by creating awareness of consequences.
* Application: Phishing simulations act as deterrent controls by educating employees and reducing the likelihood of successful phishing attacks through increased awareness.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Preventive: Preventive controls aim to stop incidents before they occur. Phishing simulations do not prevent but rather educate.
* Detective: Detective controls identify and respond to incidents after they occur. Phishing simulations are proactive rather than reactive.
* Compensating: Compensating controls provide alternative measures when primary controls are not feasible. Phishing simulations are not compensating but directly address phishing risk.
* Best Practices:
* Regular Simulations: Conduct regular phishing simulations to maintain high levels of awareness.
* Feedback and Training: Provide immediate feedback and additional training to employees who fail simulations.
References:
* Sybex CISSP Official Study Guide: Details how phishing simulations serve as deterrent controls by educating and preparing employees against phishing attacks .
* CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the role of awareness programs and simulations in enhancing security posture through deterrent measures .
NEW QUESTION # 358
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
- A. An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
- B. A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
- C. An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
- D. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A web-based service provider is an organization that offers online services or applications to its customers or users, such as e-commerce, social media, cloud computing, etc. A web-based service provider depends on the availability, reliability, and security of its web servers, networks, and systems to deliver its services or applications.
* A low risk appetite for system outages means that the organization is not willing to accept a high level or frequency of system outages, which are interruptions or disruptions in the normal operation or functionality of the web servers, networks, or systems. System outages can cause customer dissatisfaction, revenue loss, reputation damage, or legal liability for the web-based service provider.
* A current risk profile for online security is the current state or condition of the online security risks that may affect the web-based service provider's objectives and operations. It includes the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the online security risks, and the prioritization and response to them based on their significance and urgency.
* The most relevant observation to escalate to senior management is an increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, which are malicious attacks that aim to overwhelm or overload the
* web servers, networks, or systems with a large volume or frequency of requests or traffic, and prevent them from responding to legitimate requests or traffic. An increase in attempted DDoS attacks indicates a high likelihood and impact of system outages, and a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider's online security. Escalating this observation to senior management can help them to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
* The other options are not the most relevant observations to escalate to senior management, because they do not indicate a high likelihood or impact of system outages, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
* An increase in attempted website phishing attacks means an increase in malicious attempts to deceive or trick the web-based service provider's customers or users into providing their personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, etc., by impersonating the web-based service provider's website or email. An increase in attempted website phishing attacks indicates a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider's online security, but it may not directly cause system outages, unless the phishing attacks are used to compromise the web servers, networks, or systems. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider's risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management's involvement or approval.
* A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs) means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the web-based service provider meets or exceeds the agreed or expected standards or criteria for the quality, performance, or availability of its services or applications, as specified in the contracts or agreements with its customers or users. A decrease in achievement of SLAs indicates a low level of customer satisfaction, retention, or loyalty, and a low level of competitiveness or profitability for the web-based service provider. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider's risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management's involvement or approval.
* A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities means a decrease in the number or percentage of web security vulnerabilities that have been identified and resolved or mitigated by the web-based service provider. Web security vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the web servers, networks, or systems that can be exploited by malicious attackers to compromise or damage the web-based service provider's online security. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities indicates a low level of effectiveness or efficiency for the web-based service provider's web security controls or processes. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider's risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management's involvement or approval. References =
* ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48,
54-55, 58-59, 62-63
* ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 161
* CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 359
An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
- A. Reject the business initiative
- B. Document formal acceptance of the risk
- C. Change the level of risk appetite
- D. Recommend risk remediation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The risk practitioner's most important action related to the decision to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite is to document formal acceptance of the risk.
Formal acceptance of the risk means that the organization acknowledges and agrees to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Formal acceptance of the risk should be documented and approved by the appropriate authority level, such as senior management or the board of directors. Formal acceptance of the risk should also include the rationale, assumptions, and conditions for accepting the risk, as well as the monitoring and reporting mechanisms for the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk provides evidence and accountability for the risk management decision and helps to avoid disputes or misunderstandings in the future. The other options are not as important as documenting formal acceptance of the risk, as they are related to the alternatives, adjustments, or rejections of the risk, not the actual acceptance of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page
133.
NEW QUESTION # 360
The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:
- A. possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure
- B. inconsistencies between security policies and procedures
- C. leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)
- D. unknown threats to undermine existing access controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure. Continuous monitoring of access controls is a process that involves collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and effectiveness of the access controls on a regular basis. Continuous monitoring of access controls helps to detect and prevent any unauthorized or inappropriate access to information assets, and to ensure that the access controls arealigned with the enterprise's security policies and standards. Continuous monitoring of access controls also helps to identify possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure, such as data leakage, data theft, data tampering, or data breach. By identifying these activities, the enterprise can take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate the risk and protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section
3.3.2, page 1411
NEW QUESTION # 361
Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?
- A. Risk magnitude
- B. Risk response
- C. Risk tolerance
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 362
To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:
- A. Business processes
- B. A control framework
- C. Industry standards
- D. Capability maturity targets
Answer: A
Explanation:
KRIs must be aligned to business processes to ensure they reflect actual risk conditions affecting critical operations. Misalignment can lead to inaccurate monitoring and ineffective response.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 4, Slide 380-384
NEW QUESTION # 363
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?
- A. Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)
- B. Inaccurate record management data
- C. Lack of accountability for data ownership
- D. Users having unauthorized access to data
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 364
Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?
- A. Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile
- B. Collecting data for IT risk assessment
- C. Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis
- D. Utilizing a balanced scorecard
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 365
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