[2023] Free PCCET Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily
PCCET Exam Dumps, PCCET Practice Test Questions
Passing Score, Duration, No of question, languages, Format of the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
Passing Score, Duration & Question for the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification is given below:
Passing score: 70%
Languages: English
No. of questions: 75
Exam Format: Multiple choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Following is the purpose of the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
The purpose of the Palo Alto Networks PCCET certification exam is to provide candidates with a comprehensive understanding of the foundation concepts and principles in the cybersecurity field. The certification exam is based on the NIST/NICE framework. This framework is designed to align with the latest cybersecurity curriculum and help ensure that students acquire the required skills. The exam is designed to help candidates gain foundational knowledge of the cybersecurity field, such as understanding cyber threats and defenses, and cyber hygiene. It will also validate candidates' knowledge of network security, cloud security, and SOC security. Candidates must demonstrate the ability to identify various cyber threats and defenses as well as to implement secure network design and configuration.
Topics covered by the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
- The Connected Globe: 25%
- Fundamentals of Cybersecurity: 15%
- Cloud Technologies: 30%
- Elements of Security Operations: 30%
NEW QUESTION 29
In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?
- A. Switch
- B. Cloud
- C. Infrastructure
- D. Computer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks
NEW QUESTION 30
How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?
- A. reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code
- B. costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources
- C. slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development
- D. prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
List three advantages of serverless computing over
CaaS: - Reduce costs - Increase agility - Reduce operational overhead
NEW QUESTION 31
Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?
- A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
- B. Split horizon
- C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
- D. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 32
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A. NFS
- B. UDP
- C. SNMP
- D. MAC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and end-to-end transmission control.
NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?
- A. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
- B. User-ID
- C. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
- D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.
NEW QUESTION 34
Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?
- A. Behavior-based
- B. Knowledge-based
- C. Signature-based
- D. Database-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
IDSs and IPSs also can be classified as knowledge-based (or signature-based) or behavior-based (or statistical anomaly-based) systems:
* A knowledge-based system uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts. These types of systems have lower false-alarm rates than behavior-based systems but must be continually updated with new attack signatures to be effective.
* A behavior-based system uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt.
These types of systems are more adaptive than knowledge-based systems and therefore may be more effective in detecting previously unknown vulnerabilities and attacks, but they have a much higher false-positive rate than knowledge-based systems
NEW QUESTION 35
In the network diagram below, which device is the router?
- A. A
- B. B
- C. C
- D. D
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 36
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Stateless
- B. Group policy
- C. Static packet-filter
- D. Stateful
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 37
Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?
- A. Mirai
- B. Parager
- C. Jasager
- D. Evil twin
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 38
In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?
- A. B
- B. C
- C. D
- D. A
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 39
On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?
- A. endpoint-based firewall
- B. periodic data backups
- C. full-disk encryption
- D. operating system patches
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 40
Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?
- A. Web Application Zone
- B. Segmentation Platform
- C. VPN Concentrator
- D. Content Identification
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a "pocket of trust" where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."
NEW QUESTION 41
What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?
- A. It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.
- B. It reduces the need for network security.
- C. It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.
- D. It manages applications accessible on endpoints.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 42
Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
- A. d.Authentication Header (AH)
- B. Split tunneling
- C. Diffie-Hellman groups
- D. IKE Security Association
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 43
What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?
- A. algorithms
- B. Security Incident and Event Management
- C. playbooks
- D. Cloud Access Security Broker
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOAR tools ingest aggregated alerts from detection sources (such as SIEMs, network security tools, and mailboxes) before executing automatable, process-driven playbooks to enrich and respond to these alerts.
NEW QUESTION 44
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?
- A. AutoFocus
- B. STIX
- C. Global Protect
- D. WildFire
Answer: A
Explanation:
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows. Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."
NEW QUESTION 45
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Standard Installation and Event Media
- B. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
- C. Security Infosec and Event Management
- D. Security Information and Event Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
NEW QUESTION 46
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
- A. worm
- B. virus
- C. ransomware
- D. Trojan horse
Answer: A
Explanation:
A worm replicates through the network while a virus replicates, not necessarily to spread through the network.
NEW QUESTION 47
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Stateless
- B. Group policy
- C. Static packet-filter
- D. Stateful
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren't inspected after the connection is established.
NEW QUESTION 48
......
PCCET Exam Dumps, PCCET Practice Test Questions: https://www.practicetorrent.com/PCCET-practice-exam-torrent.html
Free PCCET Study Guides Exam Questions and Answer: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1hWv_uXqQPGr5J8HYoaIfM1N9bGSSfR1i