Authentic ISACA CCAK Exam Dumps PDF - Apr-2024 Updated [Q28-Q50]

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Authentic ISACA CCAK Exam Dumps PDF - Apr-2024 Updated

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NEW QUESTION # 28
Who should define what constitutes a policy violation?

  • A. The organization
  • B. The cloud provider
  • C. The external auditor
  • D. The Internet service provider (ISP)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The organization should define what constitutes a policy violation. A policy violation refers to the breach or violation of a written policy or rule of the organization. A policy or rule is a statement that defines the expectations, standards, or requirements for the behavior, conduct, or performance of the organization's members, such as employees, customers, partners, or suppliers. Policies and rules can be based on various sources, such as laws, regulations, contracts, agreements, principles, values, ethics, or best practices12.
The organization should define what constitutes a policy violation because it is responsible for establishing, communicating, enforcing, and monitoring its own policies and rules. The organization should also define the consequences and remedies for policy violations, such as warnings, sanctions, penalties, termination, or legal action. The organization should ensure that its policies and rules are clear, consistent, fair, and aligned with its mission, vision, and goals12.
The other options are not correct. Option A, the external auditor, is incorrect because the external auditor is an independent party that provides assurance or verification of the organization's financial statements, internal controls, compliance status, or performance. The external auditor does not define the organization's policies and rules, but evaluates them against relevant standards or criteria3. Option C, the Internet service provider (ISP), is incorrect because the ISP is a company that provides access to the Internet and related services to the organization. The ISP does not define the organization's policies and rules, but may have its own policies and rules that the organization has to comply with as a customer4. Option D, the cloud provider, is incorrect because the cloud provider is a company that provides cloud computing services to the organization. The cloud provider does not define the organization's policies and rules, but may have its own policies and rules that the organization has to comply with as a customer5.
Policy Violation Definition | Law Insider1
How to Write Policies and Procedures | Smartsheet2
What is an External Auditor? - Definition from Safeopedia3
What is an Internet Service Provider (ISP)? - Definition from Techopedia4 What is Cloud Provider? - Definition from Techopedia


NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following should a cloud auditor recommend regarding controls for application interfaces and databases to prevent manual or systematic processing errors, corruption of data, or misuse?

  • A. Data input and output integrity routines
  • B. Establishment of policies and procedures across multiple system interfaces, jurisdictions, and business functions to prevent improper disclosure, alteration, or destruction
  • C. Assessment of contractual and regulatory requirements for customer access
  • D. Testing in accordance with leading industry standards such as OWASP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Data input and output integrity routines (i.e., reconciliation and edit checks) are controls that can be implemented for application interfaces and databases to prevent manual or systematic processing errors, corruption of data, or misuse. This is stated in the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) control AIS-03: Data Integrity123, which is part of the Application & Interface Security domain. The CCM is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that can be used by cloud customers to build an operational cloud risk management program.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option A refers to the CCM control AIS-02:
Customer Access Requirements2, which addresses the security, contractual, and regulatory requirements for customer access to data, assets, and information systems. Option B refers to the CCM control AIS-04: Data Security / Integrity2, which establishes policies and procedures to support data security across multiple system interfaces, jurisdictions, and business functions. Option D refers to the CCM control AIS-01: Application Security2, which requires applications and programming interfaces (APIs) to be designed, developed, deployed, and tested in accordance with leading industry standards (e.g., OWASP for web applications).
References :=
Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Assurance Frameworks What is the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)? - Cloud Security Alliance4 AIS-03: Data Integrity - CSF Tools - Identity Digital1 AIS: Application & Interface Security - CSF Tools - Identity Digital2 PR.DS-6: Integrity checking mechanisms are used to verify software ... - CSF Tools - Identity Digital


NEW QUESTION # 30
Why should the results of third-party audits and certification be relied on when analyzing and assessing the cybersecurity risks in the cloud?

  • A. To establish an audit mindset within the organization
  • B. To reinforce the role of the internal audit function
  • C. To contrast the risk generated by the loss of control
  • D. To establish an accountability culture within the organization

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
One possible reason why the results of third-party audits and certification should be relied on when analyzing and assessing the cybersecurity risks in the cloud is to contrast the risk generated by the loss of control. When an organization moves its data and processes to the cloud, it inevitably loses some degree of control over its security and compliance posture, as it depends on the cloud service provider (CSP) to implement and maintain adequate security measures and controls1 This loss of control can increase the organization's exposure to various cybersecurity risks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, denial of service, malware infection, etc2 To mitigate these risks, the organization needs to have a clear understanding of the security and compliance level of the CSP, as well as the shared responsibility model that defines the roles and responsibilities of both parties3 Third-party audits and certification can provide some level of assurance that the CSP meets certain standards and requirements related to security and compliance, such as ISO/IEC 27001, CSA STAR, SOC 2, etc. These audits and certification can also help the organization compare and contrast the security posture of different CSPs in the market, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed or compensated.
Therefore, relying on the results of third-party audits and certification can help the organization contrast the risk generated by the loss of control in the cloud, and make informed decisions about selecting and managing its cloud services.
References: 1: Security in the Cloud: Are Audits and Certifications Really Enough?3 2: Understanding The Third-Party Impact On Cybersecurity Risk - Forbes2 3: Open Certification Framework | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance : Reducing Cybersecurity Security Risk From and to Third Parties - ISACA1 : Why your cloud services need the CSA STAR Registry listing


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

  • A. The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements.
  • B. Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach or loss of data stored at the cloud service provider.
  • C. Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
  • D. Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 32
The criteria for limiting services allowing non-critical services or services requiring high availability and resilience to be moved to the cloud is an important consideration to be included PRIMARILY in the:

  • A. risk management policy.
  • B. business continuity plan.
  • C. information security standard for cloud technologies.
  • D. cloud policy.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 33
When developing a cloud compliance program, what is the PRIMARY reason for a cloud customer

  • A. To determine the total cost of the cloud services to be deployed
  • B. To confirm which vendor will be selected based on compliance with security requirements
  • C. To confirm whether the compensating controls implemented are sufficient for the cloud services
  • D. To determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
When developing a cloud compliance program, the primary reason for a cloud customer to determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures is to ensure that the cloud services are aligned with the customer's business objectives, risk appetite, and compliance obligations. Cloud services may have different characteristics, features, and capabilities than traditional on-premises services, and may require different or additional controls to meet the customer's security and compliance requirements. Therefore, the customer needs to assess how the cloud services will fit within its existing policies and procedures, such as data classification, data protection, access management, incident response, audit, and reporting. The customer also needs to identify any gaps or conflicts between the cloud services and its policies and procedures, and implement appropriate measures to address them. By doing so, the customer can ensure that the cloud services are used in a secure, compliant, and effective manner12.
References:
ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 19-20.
Cloud Compliance Frameworks: What You Need to Know


NEW QUESTION # 34
What areas should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud?

  • A. Patching, source code reviews, hypervisor, access controls
  • B. Identity and access management, data protection
  • C. Vulnerability management, cyber security reviews, patching
  • D. Patching, configuration, hypervisor, backups

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 35
A new company has all its operations in the cloud. Which of the following would be the BEST information security control framework to implement?

  • A. ISO/IEC 27002
  • B. NIST 800-73, because it is a control framework implemented by the main cloud providers
  • C. (S) Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
  • D. ISO/IEC 27018

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) would be the best information security control framework to implement for a new company that has all its operations in the cloud. The CCM is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that is aligned to the CSA best practices and is considered the de-facto standard for cloud security and privacy. The CCM covers 17 domains and 197 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud technology, such as data security, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, audit assurance, and compliance. The CCM also maps to other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks, such as ISO
27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, COBIT, FedRAMP, etc., which can help the company to achieve multiple compliance goals with one framework. The CCM also provides guidance on the shared responsibility model between cloud service providers and cloud customers, and helps to define the organizational relevance of each control12.
References:
Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
Cloud Controls Matrix and CAIQ v4 | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers?

  • A. Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS)
  • B. German IDW PS 951
  • C. BSI Criteria Catalogue C5
  • D. BSI IT-basic protection catalogue

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The BSI Criteria Catalogue C5 is a document that has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security (BSI) in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers (CSPs). The C5 stands for Cloud Computing Compliance Criteria Catalogue and specifies minimum requirements for secure cloud computing. The C5 is primarily intended for professional CSPs, their auditors, and customers of the CSPs. The C5 covers 17 domains and 114 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud security, such as data protection, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, audit assurance, and compliance. The C5 also maps to other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), COBIT, GDPR, etc. The C5 helps customers to evaluate and compare the security and compliance posture of different CSPs, and to verify that the CSPs meet their contractual obligations and legal requirements12.
References:
BSI - C5 criteria catalogue - Federal Office for Information Security
Germany C5 - Azure Compliance | Microsoft Learn


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following controls framework should the cloud customer use to assess the overall security risk of a cloud provider?

  • A. SOC2 - Type1
  • B. SOC3 - Type2
  • C. Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)
  • D. SOC1 - Type1

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following processes should be performed FIRST to properly implement the NIST SP 800-53 r4 control framework in an organization?

  • A. A selection of the security objectives the organization wants to improve
  • B. A security categorization of the information systems
  • C. A comprehensive business impact analysis (BIA)
  • D. A comprehensive tailoring of the controls of the framework

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A security categorization of the information systems should be performed first to properly implement the NIST SP 800-53 r4 control framework in an organization. Security categorization is the process of determining the potential impact on organizational operations, organizational assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation resulting from a loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system and the information processed, stored, or transmitted by that system. Security categorization is based on the application of FIPS Publication 199, Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems, which defines three levels of impact: low, moderate, and high.
Security categorization is the first step in the Risk Management Framework (RMF) described in NIST SP
800-37, Revision 2, Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations: A System Life Cycle Approach for Security and Privacy. Security categorization helps to identify the security requirements for the information system and to select an initial set of baseline security controls from NIST SP 800-53 r4, Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations. The baseline security controls can then be tailored and supplemented as needed to address specific organizational needs, risk factors, and compliance obligations12.
References:
SP 800-53 Rev. 4, Security & Privacy Controls for Federal Info Sys ...
SP 800-37 Rev. 2, Risk Management Framework for Information ...


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a corrective control that may be identified in a SaaS service provider?

  • A. Vulnerability scan
  • B. Incident response plans
  • C. Penetration testing
  • D. Log monitoring

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

  • A. Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes
  • B. Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders
  • C. Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments
  • D. Establishing ownership and accountability

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The most effective way to enhance the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program is to establish ownership and accountability for each risk and its corresponding control. Ownership and accountability mean that the stakeholders who are responsible for managing, implementing, monitoring, and reporting on the cloud compliance program have clearly defined roles, responsibilities, expectations, and authorities. Ownership and accountability also mean that the stakeholders who are affected by or involved in the cloud compliance program have sufficient awareness, communication, collaboration, and feedback mechanisms. Establishing ownership and accountability helps to ensure that the risks and controls are properly identified, assessed, prioritized, treated, and reviewed in a timely and consistent manner. It also helps to foster a culture of trust, transparency, and accountability among the internal stakeholders and to align their goals and interests with the organization's cloud compliance objectives.1 [2][2] References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 521; Cloud Compliance: A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Data Protection Compliance[


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which statement about compliance responsibilities and ownership of accountability is correct?

  • A. Organizations may be able to transfer their accountability for compliance with various regulatory requirements to their CSPs, but they retain the ownership of responsibility.
  • B. Organizations are not able to transfer their responsibility nor accountability for compliance with various regulatory requirements to their CSPs.
  • C. Organizations may be able to transfer their responsibility for compliance with various regulatory requirements to their CSPs, but they retain the ownership of accountability.
  • D. Organizations may transfer their responsibility and accountability for compliance with various regulatory requirements to their CSPs.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 42
What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

  • A. Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking ordeleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.
  • B. Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.
  • C. Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.
  • D. Both B and D.
  • E. Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following defines the criteria designed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) to specify trusted services?

  • A. Security, confidentiality, availability, privacy and processing integrity
  • B. Security, data integrity, availability, privacy and processing integrity
  • C. Security, applicability, availability, privacy and processing integrity
  • D. Security, confidentiality, availability, privacy and trustworthiness

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 44
An IS auditor is a member of an application development team that is selecting software. Which of the following would impair the auditor's independence?

  • A. Approving the vendor selection methodology
  • B. verifying the weighting of each selection criteria
  • C. Reviewing the request for proposal (RFP)
  • D. Witnessing the vendor selection process

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

  • A. Organized Downtime
  • B. Resiliency Planning
  • C. Chaos Engineering
  • D. PlannedOutages
  • E. Expected Engineering

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 46
CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

  • A. Risk Impact
  • B. Control Specification
  • C. Domain

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 47
How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

  • A. Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly
  • B. Full back ups weekly
  • C. Incremental backups daily
  • D. Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures
  • E. Multiple copies indifferent locations

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 48
An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month. Which of the following What should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider's burden?

  • A. The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process
  • B. The provider can answer each customer individually.
  • C. The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry.
  • D. The provider can schedule a call with each customer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The CSA STAR registry is a publicly accessible registry that documents the security and privacy controls provided by popular cloud computing offerings. The registry is based on the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a framework of cloud-specific security best practices, and the GDPR Code of Conduct, which is a set of privacy principles for cloud service providers. The registry allows cloud customers to assess the security and compliance posture of cloud service providers, as well as to compare different providers based on their level of assurance. The registry also reduces the complexity and cost of filling out multiple customer questionnaires and requests for proposal (RFPs). Therefore, the best recommendation to reduce the provider's burden is to direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry, which can demonstrate the provider's transparency, trustworthiness, and adherence to industry standards. The provider can also encourage customers to use the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ), which is a standardized set of questions based on the CCM, to evaluate the provider's security controls. Alternatively, the provider can pursue higher levels of assurance, such as third-party audits or continuous monitoring, to further validate their security and privacy practices and increase customer confidence.
References:
STAR Registry | CSA
STAR | CSA
CSA Security Trust Assurance and Risk (STAR) Registry Reaches Notable ...
Why CSA STAR Is Important for Cloud Service Providers - A-LIGN


NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing an outsourcing arrangement with a third-party cloud service provider to host personally identifiable data?

  • A. The outsourcing contract does not contain a right-to-audit clause.
  • B. The organization's servers are not compatible with the third party's infrastructure
  • C. Fees are charged based on the volume of data stored by the host.
  • D. The data is not adequately segregated on the host platform.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 50
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