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NEW QUESTION # 80
When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?
- A. Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.
- B. Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.
- C. Only one rule is required for each connection.
- D. Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Stateful Inspection is a firewall technology that inspects both the header and the payload of each packet and keeps track of the state and context of each connection. Packet Filtering is a firewall technology that inspects only the header of each packet and does not keep track of the state or context of each connection. A benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packet Filtering is that only one rule is required for each connection, whereas Packet Filtering requires two rules for each connection (one for each direction). Stateful Inspection also offers other benefits over Packet Filtering, such as enhanced security, performance, and flexibility.
Stateful Inspection does not offer unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage, nor does it avoid using memory to record the protocol used by the connection.References: [Stateful Inspection], [Packet Filtering], [Firewall Technologies]
NEW QUESTION # 81
What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
- A. Monitor
- B. Read-only
- C. CLI.sh
- D. Bash
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following are types of VPN communities?
- A. Pentagon, star, and combination
- B. Meshed, star, and combination
- C. Combined and star
- D. Star, octagon, and combination
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?
- A. Specific - derived from a selected object
- B. Not-defined
- C. Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask
- D. Route-based - derived from gateway routing table
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R81.x?
- A. Full Log
- B. Detailed Log
- C. Log
- D. Extended Log
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 85
What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?
- A. Automatic Static NAT
- B. Manual Static NAT
- C. Automatic Hide NAT
- D. Manual Hide NAT
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Automatic Hide NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default1. This means that the source IP address and port number are translated to a different IP address and port number. This allows multiple hosts to share a single IP address for outbound connections. References: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 86
R81.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?
- A. Version R75 and higher
- B. Versions R76 and higher
- C. Versions R77 and higher
- D. Versions R75.20 and higher
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 87
In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?
- A. The same computer or appliance.
- B. Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.
- C. In Azure and AWS cloud environments.
- D. Different computers or appliances.
Answer: D
Explanation:
"The Security Management ServerClosed (1) and the Security GatewayClosed (3) are installed on different computers, with a network connection (2)." https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/Topics-IUG/Getting-Started.htm
NEW QUESTION # 88
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?
- A. Suppression
- B. Accounting
- C. Accounting/Extended
- D. Accounting/Suppression
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. You can add Accounting and/or Suppression to each of these options1. Accounting enables you to track the amount of data that is sent or received by a specific rule. Suppression enables you to reduce the number of logs that are generated by a specific rule. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Accounting/Suppression.
References: Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide R80 - Check Point Software
NEW QUESTION # 89
What is the default shell for the command line interface?
- A. Clish
- B. Expert
- C. Admin
- D. Normal
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_Gaia_AdminGuide/Topics-GAG/Gaia-Clish-Commands.htm
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?
- A. High Availability
- B. Fail Open
- C. Load Sharing
- D. Bridge
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 91
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
- A. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
- B. A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.
- C. A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.
- D. A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The purpose of a Stealth Rule is to drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed1, p. 32. A Stealth Rule is usually placed at the top of the rule base, before any other rule that allows traffic to the Security Gateway2, p. 13. A Stealth Rule is not used to hide a server's IP address, to allow administrators to access SmartDashboard, or to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test
NEW QUESTION # 92
Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?
- A. Application Control rule
- B. IPS bypass rule
- C. Firewall rule
- D. Manual NAT rule
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Security Zones are a feature of Application Control and Identity Awareness that allow you to define groups of network objects based on their level of trust. Security Zones do not work with Manual NAT rules, because Manual NAT rules are applied before the Application Control and Identity Awareness policy is enforced1.
References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 93
What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?
- A. Light Agent
- B. Endpoint Security Client
- C. System Agent
- D. Full Agent
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Full Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication2. Packet tagging is a feature that enables the Security Gateway to identify the source user and machine of each packet, regardless of NAT or routing. Computer authentication is a feature that enables the Security Gateway to authenticate machines that are not associated with any user, such as servers or unattended workstations. The other options are incorrect.
Endpoint Security Client is not an Identity Agent, but a software that provides endpoint security features such as firewall, antivirus, VPN, etc. Light Agent is an Identity Agent that does not require installation and runs on a web browser, but it does not support packet tagging or computer authentication. System Agent is not an Identity Agent, but a software that provides system information and health monitoring for endpoints.
References: Check Point Identity Agent for Microsoft Windows 10
NEW QUESTION # 94
Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.
- A. Explicit Cleanup
- B. Explicit Drop
- C. Implied Drop
- D. Implicit Drop
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
It is Best Practice to have an Explicit CleanUp rule at the end of each policy layer. This rule will log and drop any traffic that does not match any of the preceding rules in the layer1, p. 23. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?
- A. Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.
- B. Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.
- C. Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.
- D. Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run
Answer: A
Explanation:
File scanning is a job for ThreatCloud and it sandboxes/scrubs files.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?
- A. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway
- B. Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart
- C. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy
- D. Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because after installing a new multicore CPU, the administrator needs to configure CoreXL to make use of the additional cores and reboot the Security Gateway. Installing the Security Policy is not necessary because it does not affect the CoreXL configuration1. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 97
You can see the following graphic:
What is presented on it?
- A. Shared secret properties of John's password.
- B. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.
- C. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.
- D. VPN certificate properties of the John's gateway.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 98
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?
- A. Installation history
- B. Gateway history
- C. Gateway installations
- D. Revisions
Answer: A
Explanation:
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, an administrator would use the Installation history tool1, p. 22. The Installation history tool shows the date and time of each policy installation, the name of the administrator who installed it, and the status of the installation3. Revisions, Gateway installations, and Gateway history are not valid tools in SmartConsole. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point SmartConsole R81 Help
NEW QUESTION # 99
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.
- A. Stored on the Security Management Server.
- B. Sent to the Security Administrator.
- C. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
- D. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is stored on the Certificate Revocation List (CRL)1, p. 47. The CRL is a list of certificates that have been revoked before their expiration date4. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Free Check Point CCSA Sample Questions and Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 100
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
- A. Profiles
- B. IPS Protections
- C. ThreatWiki
- D. Protections
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the Learn More About Threat Signatures4, to quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, you can use the IPS Protections tool. This tool shows you the date and time of the last update, as well as the number of signatures and their categories. References: Learn More About Threat Signatures
NEW QUESTION # 101
In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?
- A. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap
- B. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap
- C. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap
- D. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 102
Office mode means that:
- A. Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.
- B. SecureID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.
- C. Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.
- D. Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Office Mode enables a Security Gateway to assign internal IP addresses to SecureClient users. This IP address will not be exposed to the public network, but is encapsulated inside the VPN tunnel between the client and the Gateway. The IP to be used externally should be assigned to the client in the usual way by the Internet Service provider used for the Internet connection. This mode allows a Security Administrator to control which addresses are used by remote clients inside the local network and makes them part of the local network. The mechanism is based on an IKE protocol extension through which the Security Gateway can send an internal IP address to the client.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
- A. Manage and Command Line
- B. Security Policies
- C. Logs and Monitor
- D. Gateway and Servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 104
Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies. Which statement below is TRUE about these types of communities?
- A. In a star community, satellite gateways cannot communicate with each other.
- B. In a mesh community, member gateways cannot communicate directly with each other.
- C. A star community requires Check Point gateways, as it is a Check Point proprietary technology.
- D. In a mesh community, all members can create a tunnel with any other member.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 105
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