EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 171 Questions)
Real 312-38 dumps - Real EC-COUNCIL dumps PDF
Final Thoughts
With the recent technological advancements, computer networks are no longer the simple connection of servers and systems managed by network administrators they used to be. They are complex infrastructures that have reduced the globe to a small village. But with this comes the consistent threat of digital attacks. To evade such incidents, most of the independent certification vendors such as the EC-Council are moving ahead of time to create certification paths to validate security experts who can act as the last line of defense against security incidents. Well, if getting a job in this path makes sense to you, check out the EC-Council Certified Network Defender designation alongside 312-38 evaluation. Simply put, it is a rewarding career track, to say the least.
Understanding functional and technical aspects of Certified Network Defender Security Principles and Practices
The following will be discussed in ECCOUNCIL EC 312-38 exam dumps:
- Describe the different instances of organization level assault strategies
- Understand principal objective, advantages, and difficulties in network protection
- Explain protection top to bottom security system
- Redefine Access Control security in Today's
- Select firewalls dependent on its profound traffic examination ability
- Understand firewall geographies and their use - Distinguish between equipment, programming, have, network, inner, and outer firewalls
- Discuss other regulatory safety efforts
- Describe the different instances of cell phone explicit assault methods
- Discuss cryptographic security procedures
- Describe Attacker's Hacking Methodologies and Frameworks
- Explain fundamental wordings identified with network security assaults
- Describe the different instances of cloud-explicit assault methods
- Discuss different fundamental organization security arrangements
- Discuss different fundamental organization security conventions
- Learn to plan and foster security approaches
- Understand various sorts of firewall advances and their use
- Leverage Zero Trust Model Security utilizing Programming Defined Perimeter (SDP)
- Discuss IDS/IPS arrangement - Discuss different parts of IDS - Discuss viable organization of organization and host-based IDS
- Describe the different instances of social designing assault strategies
- Discuss different Regulatory Frameworks, Laws, and Acts
- Discuss Identity and Access Management (IAM) ideas
- Describe the different instances of email assault methods
- Discuss firewall execution and sending measure
- Conduct security mindfulness preparing
- Discuss firewall organization exercises - Understand job, abilities, limits, and worries in IDS arrangement
- Understand firewall security concerns, abilities, and impediments
- Discuss different NIDS and HIDS Solutions with their interruption location capacities
- Discuss the determination of fitting IDS arrangements
- Learn to how to manage bogus positive and bogus negative IDS cautions
- Describe the different instances of remote organization explicit assault methods
- Describe the different instances of applicationlevel assault strategies
- Discuss switch and switch safety efforts, proposals, and best practices
- Explain Continual/Adaptive security procedure
- Discuss suggestions and best practices for secure firewall Implementation and arrangement
NEW QUESTION 49
You work for a professional computer hacking forensic investigator DataEnet Inc. To explore the e-mail information about an employee of the company. The suspect an employee to use the online e-mail systems such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer you are going to check to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. download folder
- B. Temporary Internet Folder
- C. History Folder
- D. cookies folder
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION 50
Brendan wants to implement a hardware based RAID system in his network. He is thinking of choosing a suitable RAM type for the architectural setup in the system. The type he is interested in provides access times of up to 20 ns. Which type of RAM will he select for his RAID system?
- A. NVRAM
- B. SRAM
- C. SDRAM
- D. NAND flash memory
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 51
Which of the following OSI layers defines the electrical and physical specifications for devices?
- A. Physical layer
- B. Transport layer
- C. Presentation layer
- D. Data link layer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 52
Adam works as a Professional Penetration Tester. A project has been assigned to him to test the vulnerabilities of the CISCO Router of Umbrella Inc. Adam finds out that HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability exists in the router. By applying different password cracking tools, Adam gains access to the router. He analyzes the router config file and notices the following lines:
logging buffered errors
logging history critical
logging trap warnings
logging 10.0.1.103
By analyzing the above lines, Adam concludes that this router is logging at log level 4 to the syslog server
10.0.1.103. He decides to change the log level from 4 to 0.
Which of the following is the most likely reason of changing the log level?
- A. Changing the log level grants access to the router as an Administrator.
- B. By changing the log level, Adam can easily perform a SQL injection attack.
- C. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the logging of only emergencies. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.
- D. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the termination of logging. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Router Log Level directive is used by the sys log server to specify the level of severity of the log. This directive is used to control the types of errors that are sent to the error log by constraining the severity level.
Eight different levels are present in the Log Level directive, which are shown below in order of their descending significance:
Number Level Description
0emergEmergencies - system is unusable
1alertAction must be taken immediately
2critCritical Conditions
3errorError conditions
4warnWarning conditions
5notice Normal but significant condition
6infoInformational
7debug Debug-level messages
Note: When a certain level is specified, the messages from all other levels of higher significance will also be reported. For example, when Log Level crit is specified, then messages with log levels of alert and emerg will also be reported.
NEW QUESTION 53
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A ______________ gateway is a type of network gateway that provides the added capability to control devices across the Internet.
Answer:
Explanation:
home automation
Explanation:
A home automation gateway is a type of network gateway that provides the added capability to control devices across the Internet. Most gateways plug in to the home broadband router (and a wall outlet for power). When connected to a router that has Internet connectivity, the automation gateway helps in enabling computers and Web-enabled phones to remotely access automation devices at home.
NEW QUESTION 54
In which of the following attacks does an attacker use software that tries a large number of key combinations in
order to get a password?
- A. Zero-day attack
- B. Smurf attack
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Brute force attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a brute force attack, an attacker uses software that tries a large number of key combinations in order to get
a password. To prevent such attacks, users should create passwords that are more difficult to guess, i.e., by
using a minimum of six characters, alphanumeric combinations, and lower-upper case combinations.
Answer option D is incorrect. Smurf is an attack that generates significant computer network traffic on a victim
network. This is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods a target system via spoofed broadcast ping
messages. In such attacks, a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP
broadcast addresses, all of which have a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. If the routing
device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all hosts, most hosts on that
IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply, which multiplies the traffic by the
number of hosts responding.
Answer option A is incorrect. Buffer overflow is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is
configured to accept. It helps an attacker not only to execute a malicious code on the target system but also to
install backdoors on the target system for further attacks. All buffer overflow attacks are due to only sloppy
programming or poor memory management by the application developers. The main types of buffer overflows
are:
Stack overflow
Format string overflow
Heap overflow
Integer overflow
Answer option C is incorrect. A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries
to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor,
or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out
an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the mvulnerability. User
awareness training is the most effective technique to mitigate such attacks.
NEW QUESTION 55
Which of the following is a distance vector routing protocols? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. IGRP
- B. REST IN PEACE
- C. OSPF
- D. IS-IS
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 56
A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides an attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform war dialing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. ToneLoc
- B. NetStumbler
- C. THC-Scan
- D. Wingate
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
THC-Scan and ToneLoc are tools used for war dialing. A war dialer is a tool that is used to scan thousands of telephone numbers to detect vulnerable modems. It provides the attacker unauthorized access to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. NetStumbler is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. It detects wireless
networks and marks their relative position with a GPS. It uses an 802.11 Probe Request
that has been sent to the broadcast destination address.
Answer option B is incorrect. Wingate is a proxy server.
NEW QUESTION 57
Which of the following is a telecommunication service designed for cost-efficient data transmission for intermittent traffic between local area networks (LANs) and between end-points in a wide area network (WAN)?
- A. X.25
- B. ISDN
- C. None
- D. Frame relay
- E. PPP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Frame relay is a telecommunication service designed for cost-efficient data transmission for intermittent traffic between local area networks (LANs) and between end-points in a wide area network (WAN). Frame relay puts data in a variable-size unit called a frame. It checks for lesser errors as compared to other traditional forms of packet switching and hence speeds up data transmission. When an error is detected in a frame, it is simply dropped. The end points are responsible for detecting and retransmitting dropped frames.
Answer option C is incorrect. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a digital telephone/ telecommunication network that carries voice, data, and video over an existing telephone network infrastructure. It requires an ISDN modem at both the ends of a transmission. ISDN is designed to provide a single interface for hooking up a telephone, fax machine, computer, etc. ISDN has two levels of service, i.e., Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI).
Answer option A is incorrect. The Point-to-Point Protocol, or PPP, is a data link protocol commonly used to establish a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption privacy, and compression. PPP is commonly used as a data link layer protocol for connection over synchronous and asynchronous circuits, where it has largely superseded the older, non- standard Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) and telephone company mandated standards (such as Link Access Protocol, Balanced (LAPB) in the X.25 protocol suite). PPP was designed to work with numerous network layer protocols, including Internet Protocol (IP), Novell's Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), NBF, and AppleTalk.
Answer option D is incorrect. The X.25 protocol, adopted as a standard by the Consultative Committee for International Telegraph and Telephone (CCITT), is a commonly-used network protocol. The X.25 protocol allows computers on different public networks (such as CompuServe, Tymnet, or a TCP/IP network) to communicate through an intermediary computer at the network layer level. X.25's protocols correspond closely to the data-link and physical-layer protocols defined in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communication model.
NEW QUESTION 58
Which of the following standards is a proposed enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications that offers quality of service (QoS) features, including the prioritization of data, voice, and video transmissions?
- A. 802.11n
- B. 802.15
- C. 802.11e
- D. 802.11h
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 802.11e standard is a proposed enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications. It offers quality of service (QoS) features, including the prioritization of data, voice, and video transmissions. 802.11e enhances the 802.11 Media Access Control layer (MAC layer) with a coordinated time division multiple access (TDMA) construct, and adds error-correcting mechanisms for delay-sensitive applications such as voice and video. Answer option D is incorrect. 802.11h refers to the amendment added to the IEEE 802.11 standard for Spectrum and Transmit Power Management Extensions.
Answer option B is incorrect. 802.11n is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11-2007 wireless networking standard to improve network throughput over the two previous standards - 802.11a and 802.11g - with a significant increase in the maximum raw data rate from 54 Mbit/s to 600 Mbit/s with the use of four spatial streams at a channel width of 40 MHz. Answer option A is incorrect. IEEE 802.15 is a working group of the IEEE 802 and specializes in Wireless PAN (Personal Area Network) standards. It includes seven task groups, which are as follows:
1.Task group 1 (WPAN/Bluetooth)
2.Task group 2 (Coexistence)
3.Task group 3 (High Rate WPAN)
4.Task group 4 (Low Rate WPAN)
5.Task group 5 (Mesh Networking)
6.Task Group 6 (BAN)
7.Task group 7 (VLC)
NEW QUESTION 59
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-
45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
- A. Parallel
- B. Loopback
- C. Serial
- D. Crossover
Answer: D
Explanation:
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, a crossover cable is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Parallel and serial cables do not use RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable. Parallel cables are used to connect printers, scanners etc., to computers, whereas serial cables are used to connect modems, digital cameras etc., to computers.
Answer option A is incorrect. A loopback cable is used for testing equipments.
NEW QUESTION 60
Which of the following IEEE standards defines a physical bus topology?
- A. 802.6
- B. 802.3
- C. 802.5
- D. 802.4
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 61
Which of the following is a software tool used in passive attacks for capturing network traffic?
- A. Warchalking
- B. Intrusion detection system
- C. Intrusion prevention system
- D. Sniffer
Answer: D
Explanation:
A sniffer is a software tool that is used to capture any network traffic. Since a sniffer changes the NIC of the LAN card into promiscuous mode, the NIC begins to record incoming and outgoing data traffic across the network. A sniffer attack is a passive attack because the attacker does not directly connect with the target host. This attack is most often used to grab logins and passwords from network traffic. Tools such as Ethereal, Snort, Windump, EtherPeek, Dsniff are some good examples of sniffers. These tools provide many facilities to users such as graphical user interface, traffic statistics graph, multiple sessions tracking, etc. Answer option A is incorrect. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a network security device that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious or unwanted behavior and can react, in real-time, to block or prevent those activities. When an attack is detected, it can drop the offending packets while still allowing all other traffic to pass. Answer option B is incorrect. An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Intrusion prevention is the process of performing intrusion detection and attempting to stop detected possible incidents. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, attempting to stop them, and reporting them to security administrators. Answer option C is incorrect. Warchalking is the drawing of symbols in public places to advertise an open Wi-Fi wireless network. Having found a Wi-Fi node, the warchalker draws a special symbol on a nearby object, such as a wall, the pavement, or a lamp post. The name warchalking is derived from the cracker terms war dialing and war driving.
NEW QUESTION 62
Which of the following is the full form of SAINT?
- A. System Admin Integrated Network Tool
- B. System Administrators Integrated Network Tool
- C. System Automated Integrated Network Tool
- D. Security Admin Integrated Network Tool
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 63
Which of the following are the responsibilities of the disaster recovery team?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. To monitor the execution of the disaster recovery plan and assess the results
- B. To initiate the execution of the disaster recovery procedures
- C. To notify management, affected personnel, and third parties about the disaster
- D. To modify and update the disaster recovery plan according to the lessons learned from previous disaster recovery efforts
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
The responsibilities of the disaster recovery team are as follows:To develop, deploy, and monitor the implementation of appropriate disaster recovery plans after analysis of business objectives and threats to organizations To notify management, affected personnel, and third parties about the disaster To initiate the execution of the disaster recovery procedures To monitor the execution of the disaster recovery plan and assess the results To return operations to normal conditions To modify and update the disaster recovery plan according to the lessons learned from previous disaster recovery efforts To increase the level of the organization's disaster recovery preparedness by conducting mock drills, regular DR systems testing, and threat analysisTo create awareness among various stakeholders of the organization by conducting training and awareness sessions
NEW QUESTION 64
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________ is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices.
Answer:
Explanation:
Bluetooth
Explanation:
Bluetooth is an open wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices, creating personal area networks with high levels of security. Created by telecoms vendor Ericsson in 1994, it was originally conceived as a wireless alternative to RS-232 data cables. It can connect several devices, overcoming problems of synchronization. Today Bluetooth is managed by the Bluetooth Special Interest Group.
NEW QUESTION 65
Which of the following steps of the OPSEC process examines each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then compare those indicators with the adversary's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action?
- A. Assessment of Risk
- B. Identification of Critical Information
- C. Analysis of Vulnerabilities
- D. Analysis of Threats
- E. Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures
Answer: C
Explanation:
OPSEC is a 5-step process that helps in developing protection mechanisms in order to safeguard sensitive information and preserve essential secrecy. The OPSEC process has five steps, which are as follows:
1.Identification of Critical Information: This step includes identifying information vitally needed by an adversary, which focuses the remainder of the OPSEC process on protecting vital information, rather than attempting to protect all classified or sensitive unclassified information.
2.Analysis of Threats: This step includes the research and analysis of intelligence, counter-intelligence, and open source information to identify likely adversaries to a planned operation.
3.Analysis of Vulnerabilities: It includes examining each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then comparing those indicators with the adversary's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action. 4.Assessment of Risk: Firstly, planners analyze the vulnerabilities identified in the previous action and identify possible OPSEC measures for each vulnerability. Secondly, specific OPSEC measures are selected for execution based upon a risk assessment done by the commander and staff.
5.Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures: The command implements the OPSEC measures selected in the assessment of risk action or, in the case of planned future operations and activities, includes the measures in specific OPSEC plans.
NEW QUESTION 66
How can a WAF validate traffic before it reaches a web application?
- A. It uses a rule-based filtering technique
- B. It uses a role-based filtering technique
- C. It uses a sandboxing filtering technique
- D. It uses an access-based filtering technique
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following fields in the IPv6 header replaces the TTL field in the IPv4 header?
- A. Next header
- B. Version
- C. Hop limit
- D. Traffic class
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 68
Which of the following is a mandatory password-based and key-exchange authentication protocol?
- A. VRRP
- B. DH-CHAP
- C. CHAP
- D. PPP
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 69
Which of the following is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security?
- A. L2TP
- B. IP
- C. PPP
- D. IPSec
Answer: D
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security.
IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the
L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling
Protocol (PPTP).
Answer option B is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across a
packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.IP is the primary
protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering distinguished protocol
datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on their addresses. For this
purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for datagram encapsulation. The
first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the
dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed
actively worldwide.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to
connect to the Internet. It supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of
networks. It can connect to a network running on the IPX, TCP/IP, or NetBEUI protocol. It supports multi-
protocol and dynamic IP assignments. It is the default protocol for the Microsoft Dial-Up adapter.
Answer option A is incorrect. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a more secure version of Point-to-Point
Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). It provides tunneling, address assignment, and authentication. It allows the transfer
of Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) traffic between different networks. L2TP combines with IPSec to provide
tunneling and security for Internet Protocol (IP), Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), and other protocol
packets across IP networks.
NEW QUESTION 70
Which of the following representatives of the incident response team takes forensic backups of systems that
are the focus of an incident?
- A. Technical representative
- B. Legal representative
- C. Information security representative
- D. Lead investigator
Answer: A
Explanation:
A technical representative creates forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident and provides
valuable information about the configuration of the network and target system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A lead investigator acts as the manager of the computer security incident
response team.
Answer option D is incorrect. The legal representative looks after legal issues and ensures that the
investigation process does not break any law.
Answer option C is incorrect. The information security representative informs about the security safeguards
that may affect their ability to respond to the incident.
NEW QUESTION 71
An organization needs to adhere to the______________rules for safeguarding and protecting the electronically stored health information of employees.
- A. PCI DSS
- B. SOX
- C. ISEC
- D. HI PA A
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 72
......
Realistic PracticeTorrent 312-38 Dumps PDF - 100% Passing Guarantee: https://www.practicetorrent.com/312-38-practice-exam-torrent.html
Free EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Questions and Answer: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1g2haXRcCpIfdQ8cUX11GlEGL1HRPmrUt