[Oct-2023] Free 312-38 Exam Dumps to Improve Exam Score
2023 Realistic 312-38 Dumps Exam Tips Test Pdf Exam Material
The EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the candidate’s ability to protect, detect, and respond to network security threats. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification is ideal for network administrators, IT professionals, security officers, and anyone looking to enhance their knowledge and skills in network security. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification exam covers both theory and practical exercises to ensure that the candidate has the necessary skills and knowledge to defend against network security threats. Passing the EC-Council CND certification exam is a significant achievement for any cybersecurity professional and opens up numerous career opportunities.
The EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification is an industry-recognized certification designed to validate the skills and knowledge of network security professionals. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification covers topics such as network security, network defense, and security policies and procedures. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the various topics covered in the certification and is administered online, making it convenient for professionals who are unable to attend traditional classroom training.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following commands is used for port scanning?
- A. nc -t
- B. nc -z
- C. nc -d
- D. nc -v
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Spectrum analyzer
- B. Protocol analyzer
- C. Performance Monitor
- D. Wireless sniffer
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Protocol analyzer (also known as a network analyzer, packet analyzer or sniffer, or for particular types of networks, an Ethernet sniffer or wireless sniffer) is computer software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network. As data streams flow across the network, the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server.
Answer option B is incorrect. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of an electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which of the following attacks combines dictionary and brute force attacks?
- A. Man-in-the-middle attack
- B. Phishing attack
- C. Hybrid attack
- D. Replay attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following biometric devices is used to take impressions of the friction ridges of the skin on the underside of the tip of the fingers?
- A. Facial recognition device
- B. Iris camera
- C. Voice recognition voiceprint
- D. Fingerprint reader
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 128
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A _____________ is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography.
Answer:
Explanation:
signature
Explanation:
A digital signature is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. A digital signature not only validates the sender's identity, but also ensures that the document's contents have not been altered. It verifies that the source and integrity of the document is not compromised since the document is signed. A digital signature provides the following assurances: Authenticity, Integrity, and Non-repudiation. Microsoft Office 2007 Excel and Word provide a feature known as Signature line to insert a user's digital signature on a document.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides end-to-end connections and reliability?
- A. Transport layer
- B. Network layer
- C. Session layer
- D. Physical layer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 130
Your company is planning to use an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to avoid damage from power fluctuations. As a network administrator, you need to suggest an appropriate UPS solution suitable for specific resources or conditions. Match the type of UPS with the use and advantage:
- A. 1-i,2-iv,3-ii,4-v
- B. 1-ii,2-iv,3-iii,4-i
- C. 1-v,2-iii,3-i,4-ii
- D. 1-iii,2-iv,3-v,4-iv
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following is a distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or work loads between service providers and service requesters?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Peer-to-peer (P2P) computing
- B. Peer-to-peer networking
- C. Client-server computing
- D. Client-server networking
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Client-server networking is also known as client-server computing. It is a distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or work loads between service providers (servers) and service requesters, called clients. Often clients and servers operate over a computer network on separate hardware. A server machine is a high-performance host that is running one or more server programs which share its resources with clients. A client does not share any of its resources, but requests a server's content or service function. Clients therefore initiate communication sessions with servers which await (listen to) incoming requests. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Peer-to-peer (P2P) computing or networking is a distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or workloads between peers. Peers are equally privileged, equipotent participants in the application. They are said to form a peer-to-peer network of nodes. Peer-to-peer networking (also known simply as peer networking) differs from client-server networking, where certain devices have the responsibility to provide or "serve" data, and other devices consume or otherwise act as "clients" of those servers.
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following features is used to generate spam on the Internet by spammers and worms?
- A. AutoFill
- B. AutoComplete
- C. Server Message Block (SMB) signing
- D. SMTP relay
Answer: D
Explanation:
SMTP relay feature of e-mail servers allows them to forward e-mail to other e-mail servers. Unfortunately, this feature is exploited by spammers and worms to generate spam on the Internet.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which firewall technology provides the best of both packet filtering and application-based filtering and is used in Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances?
- A. Stateful multilayer inspection
- B. Network address translation
- C. VPN
- D. Application level gateway
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 134
Adam works as a Professional Penetration Tester. A project has been assigned to him to test the vulnerabilities of the CISCO Router of Umbrella Inc. Adam finds out that HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability exists in the router. By applying different password cracking tools, Adam gains access to the router. He analyzes the router config file and notices the following lines:
logging buffered errors
logging history critical
logging trap warnings
logging 10.0.1.103
By analyzing the above lines, Adam concludes that this router is logging at log level 4 to the syslog server 10.0.1.103. He decides to change the log level from 4 to 0.
Which of the following is the most likely reason of changing the log level?
- A. Changing the log level grants access to the router as an Administrator.
- B. By changing the log level, Adam can easily perform a SQL injection attack.
- C. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the logging of only emergencies.
This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server. - D. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the termination of logging.
This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 135
Sophie has been working as a Windows network administrator at an MNC over the past 7 years. She wants to check whether SMB1 is enabled or disabled. Which of the following command allows Sophie to do so?
- A. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature -Online -FeatureName SMB1Protocol
- B. Get-WindowsOptionalFeatures -Online -FeatureNames SMB1Protocol
- C. Get-WindowsOptionalFeatures -Online -FeatureName SMB1Protocol
- D. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature -Online -FeatureNames SMB1Protocol
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 136
The security network team is trying to implement a firewall capable of operating only in the session layer, monitoring the TCP inter-packet link protocol to determine when a requested session is legitimate or not. Using this type of firewall, they could be able to intercept the communication, making the external network see that the firewall is the source, and facing the user, who responds from the outside is the firewall itself. They are just limiting a requirements previous listed, because they already have a packet filtering firewall and they must add a cheap solution that meets the objective. What kind of firewall would you recommend?
- A. Packet Filtering with NAT
- B. Application Level Gateways
- C. Application Proxies
- D. Circuit Level Gateway
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 137
What defines the maximum time period an organization is willing to lose data during a major IT outage event?
- A. BC
- B. DR
- C. RPO
- D. RTO
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following is an Internet application protocol used for transporting Usenet news articles between news servers and for reading and posting articles by end-user client applications?
- A. NNTP
- B. BOOTP
- C. NTP
- D. DCAP
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 139
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network.
Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
- A. Recovery
- B. Preparation
- C. Eradication
- D. Containment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an incident occurs:
Establish applicable policies
Build relationships with key players
Build response kit
Create incident checklists
Establish communication plan
Perform threat modeling
Build an incident response team
Practice the demo incidents
Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied.
Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of attack.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Kelly is taking backups of the organization's dat
a. Currently, he is taking backups of only those files which are created or modified after the last backup. What type of backup is Kelly using?
- A. Full backup
- B. Normal Backup
- C. Differential Backup
- D. Incremental backup
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 141
Identity the correct order for a successful black hat operation.
- A. Reconnaissance. Gaming Access, Scanning. Maintaining Access, and Covering Tracks
- B. Reconnaissance, Scanning, Gaining Access, Covering Tracks, and Maintaining Access
- C. Reconnaissance. Scanning, Gaining Access. Maintaining Access, and Covering Tracks
- D. Scanning, Reconnaissance, Gaining Access. Maintaining Access and Covering Tracks
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 142
The _________ mechanism works on the basis of a client-server model.
- A. Network-based
- B. Host-based
- C. Pull-based
- D. Push-based
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?
- A. Header Length
- B. Source Port Address
- C. Acknowledgment Number
- D. Sequence Number
Answer: B
Explanation:
Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header. The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first byte of data contained in the segment.
NEW QUESTION # 144
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