New 2025 Guaranteed Success with PracticeTorrent 220-1102 Dumps CompTIA PDF Questions
Exceptional Practice To CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Pass the First Time
CompTIA 220-1102 exam covers a wide range of topics, including installing and configuring operating systems, cloud computing, virtualization, and network protocols. 220-1102 exam is composed of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. 220-1102 exam is available in several languages, including English, German, Portuguese, and Japanese. The passing score for the exam is 700 out of 900, and the certification is valid for three years.
NEW QUESTION # 166
A technician is creating a tunnel that hides IP addresses and secures all network traffic. Which of the following protocols is capable of enduring enhanced security?
- A. SSH
- B. IPS
- C. DNS
- D. VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VPN (virtual private network) is a protocol that creates a secure tunnel between two devices over the internet, hiding their IP addresses and encrypting their traffic. DNS (domain name system) is a protocol that translates domain names to IP addresses. IPS (intrusion prevention system) is a device that monitors and blocks malicious network traffic. SSH (secure shell) is aprotocol that allows remote access and command execution on another device. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpnhttps://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 167
An organization is updating the monitors on kiosk machines. While performing the upgrade, the organization would like to remove physical input devices. Which of the following utilities in the Control Panel can be used to turn on the on-screen keyboard to replace the physical input devices?
* Devices and Printers
- A. Device Manager
- B. Programs and Features
- C. Ease of Access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ease of Access is a utility in the Control Panel that allows users to adjust various accessibility settings on Windows, such as the on-screen keyboard, magnifier, narrator, high contrast, etc. The on-screen keyboard can be turned on by going to Ease of Access > Keyboard and toggling the switch to On12. Alternatively, the on-screen keyboard can be opened by pressing Windows + Ctrl + O keys or by typing osk.exe in the Run dialog box3.
References: 1 Use the On-Screen Keyboard (OSK) to
type(https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/use-the-on-screen-keyboard-osk-to-type-ecbb5e08-5b4e-d8c8 to Enable or Disable the On-Screen Keyboard in Windows 10 - Lifewire(https://www.lifewire.com/enable-or-disable-on-screen-keyboard-in-windows-10-5180667)3 On-Screen Keyboard Settings, Tips and Tricks in Windows
11/10(https://www.thewindowsclub.com/windows-onscreen-keyboard).
NEW QUESTION # 168
A systems administrator is tasked with configuring desktop systems to use a new proxy server that the organization has added to provide content filtering. Which of the following Windows utilities is the best choice for accessing the necessary configuration to complete this goal?
- A. Network and Sharing Center
- B. Security and Maintenance
- C. Windows Defender Firewall
- D. Internet Options
Answer: D
Explanation:
Proxy server
Explore
The correct answer is D. Internet Options. The Internet Options utility in Windows allows you to configure various settings related to your internet connection, including the proxy server settings. To access the Internet Options utility, you can either open the Control Panel and click on Internet Options, or open any web browser and click on the Tools menu and then on Internet Options. In the Internet Options window, go to the Connections tab and click on the LAN settings button. Here, you can enable or disable the use of a proxy server, as well as enter the address and port number of the proxy server you want to use12.
Security and Maintenance is a utility in Windows that allows you to view and manage the security and maintenance status of your computer, such as firewall, antivirus, backup, troubleshooting, and recovery settings. It does not have any option to configure proxy server settings.
Network and Sharing Center is a utility in Windows that allows you to view and manage your network connections, such as Wi-Fi, Ethernet, VPN, or dial-up. It also allows you to change network settings, such as network discovery, file and printer sharing, homegroup, and adapter settings. It does not have any option to configure proxy server settings.
Windows Defender Firewall is a utility in Windows that allows you to enable or disable the firewall protection for your computer, as well as configure firewall rules for inbound and outbound traffic. It does not have any option to configure proxy server settings.
NEW QUESTION # 169
A technician is hardening a company file server and needs to prevent unauthorized LAN devices from accessing stored files. Which of the following should the technician use?
- A. Anti-malware scans
- B. Antivirus application
- C. Password complexity
- D. Software firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
A software firewall is a program that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a computer or a server. A software firewall can help prevent unauthorized LAN devices from accessing stored files on a company file server by applying rules and policies that filter the network packets based on their source, destination, protocol, port, or content. A software firewall can also block or allow specific applications or services from communicating with the network, and alert the administrator of any suspicious or malicious activity12.
A software firewall is a better option than the other choices because:
* Password complexity (B) is a good practice to protect the file server from unauthorized access, but it is not sufficient by itself. Password complexity refers to the use of strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack by attackers, and that are changed frequently and securely. Password complexity can prevent brute force attacks or credential theft, but it cannot stop network attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in the file server software or hardware, or that bypass the authentication process34.
* Antivirus application and anti-malware scans (D) are important tools to protect the file server from viruses and malware that can infect, damage, or encrypt the stored files. However, they are not effective in preventing unauthorized LAN devices from accessing the files in the first place. Antivirus and anti-malware tools can only detect and remove known threats, and they may not be able to stop zero-day attacks or advanced persistent threats that can evade or disable them. Moreover, antivirus and anti-malware tools cannot control the network traffic or the file server permissions, and they may not be compatible with all file server platforms or configurations56.
References:
1: What is a Firewall and How Does it Work? - Cisco1 2: How to Harden Your Windows Server - ServerMania2 3: Password Security: Complexity vs. Length - Norton7 4: Password Hardening: 5 Ways to Protect Your Passwords - Infosec 5: What is Antivirus Software and How Does it Work? - Kaspersky 6: What is Anti-Malware? - Malwarebytes
NEW QUESTION # 170
A technician requires graphical remote access to various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN. The security administrator asks the technician to utilize a single software solution that does not require an external internet connection. Which of the following remote access tools is the technician most likely to install?
- A. SSH
- B. VNC
- C. RDP
- D. RMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. VNC does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. VNC uses a client-server model, where the server runs on the remote desktop and the client connects to it from another device. VNC can transmit the keyboard and mouse events from the client to the server, and the screen updates from the server to the client, enabling the technician to interact with the remote desktop as if it were local12.
VNC is a better option than the other choices because:
RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) (B) is not a single software solution, but a category of software solutions that enable IT professionals to remotely monitor, manage, and troubleshoot multiple devices and networks. RMM software may include remote access tools, but also other features such as patch management, backup and recovery, security, reporting, and automation. RMM software may require an external internet connection, as it often relies on cloud-based services or web-based consoles34.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control Windows desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. However, RDP is not compatible with Linux or macOS desktops, unless they have third-party software installed that can emulate or translate the RDP protocol. RDP also has some security and performance issues, such as encryption vulnerabilities, bandwidth consumption, and latency problems56.
SSH (Secure Shell) (D) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a command-line interface. SSH does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. SSH uses encryption and authentication to secure the communication between the client and the server. However, SSH does not provide a graphical user interface, which may limit the functionality and usability of the remote desktop7 .
Reference:
1: What is VNC? - Definition from Techopedia1 2: How VNC Works - RealVNC2 3: What is Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)? - Definition from Techopedia3 4: What is RMM Software? - NinjaRMM4 5: What is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? - Definition from Techopedia5 6: Remote Desktop Protocol: What it is and how to secure it - CSO Online6 7: What is Secure Shell (SSH)? - Definition from Techopedia7 : How to Use SSH to Access a Remote Server in Linux or Windows - Hostinger Tutorials
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of scripting languages?
* To access the hardware of the computer it is running on
- A. To compile the program into an executable file
- B. To abstract the complexity of the computer system
- C. To automate tasks and reduce the amount of manual labor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scripting languages are used to write small to medium-sized programs that perform specific tasks. Some common uses of scripting languages are: automating repetitive processes, web development, system administration, data processing, multimedia and games, report generation, document and text processing, writing plugins and extensions for existing programs and applications1.
References: 1 What is Scripting Language?: Introduction, Types, Uses & Career
...(https://leverageedu.com/blog/scripting-language/)
NEW QUESTION # 172
Which of the following is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3?
- A. Device compatibility
- B. Connection security
- C. Offline decryption resistance
- D. Encryption key length
Answer: A
Explanation:
Device compatibility is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3. WPA2 is the previous version of the Wi-Fi Protected Access protocol, which provides security and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 is the latest version, which offers improved security features, such as stronger encryption, enhanced protection against brute-force attacks, and easier configuration. However, WPA3 is not backward compatible with older devices that only support WPA2 or earlier protocols. Therefore, using WPA3 may limit the range of devices that can connect to the wireless network. Connection security, encryption key length, and offline decryption resistance are advantages of using WPA3 instead of WPA2. References:
* Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 24
* CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide (Exams 220-1101 & ..., page 1000
NEW QUESTION # 173
Which of the following change management documents includes how to uninstall a patch?
- A. Scope of change
- B. Purpose of change
- C. Risk analysis
- D. Rollback plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
The change management document that includes how to uninstall a patch is called the "rollback plan". The rollback plan is a document that outlines the steps that should be taken to undo a change that has been made to a system. In the case of a patch, the rollback plan would include instructions on how to uninstall the patch if it causes problems or conflicts with other software12
NEW QUESTION # 174
A technician is trying to connect to a user's laptop in order to securely install updates. Given the following information about the laptop:
Which of the following should the technician do to connect via RDP?
- A. Confirm the user can ping the default gateway.
- B. Change the subnet mask on the user's laptop.
- C. Open port 3389 on the Windows firewall.
- D. Change the IP address on the user's laptop.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to connect to a user's laptop via RDP, the technician should open port 3389 on the Windows firewall. This is because RDP uses port 3389 for communication12. The other options are not necessary or relevant for establishing an RDP connection.
* Confirming the user can ping the default gateway is not required for RDP, as it only tests the network connectivity between the user's laptop and the router. RDP works over the internet, so the technician should be able to ping the user's laptop directly using its IP address3.
* Changing the IP address on the user's laptop is not needed for RDP, as long as the IP address is valid and not conflicting with another device on the network. The user's laptop has a valid IP address of
* 192.168.0.45, which belongs to the same subnet as the gateway (192.168.0.1) and the subnet mask (255.255.255.0)4.
* Changing the subnet mask on the user's laptop is not required for RDP, as long as the subnet mask matches the network configuration. The user's laptop has a correct subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which defines a network with 254 possible hosts4.
References:
1: [What is RDP and How Does It Work? - CompTIA] 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives
- CompTIA 3: [Ping (networking utility) - Wikipedia] 4: [IP address - Wikipedia] : What is RDP and How Does It Work? - CompTIA : CompTIA A+ CertificationExamCore 2 Objectives - CompTIA : Ping (networking utility) - Wikipedia) : IP address - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 175
An administrator received a new shipment of mobile devices. Per company policy, all enterprise-issued devices must have two authentication methods, and the organization has already enforced the use of PIN codes as one method. Which of the following device features should the administrator enable?
- A. Smart card
- B. One-time password
- C. Biometrics
- D. Hard token
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 176
A company wants to reduce the negative ecological impacts of its business and has decided to hire an e-waste company to dispose of equipment. Which of the following should the e-waste company provide the business7
- A. Low-level formatting
- B. Certification of destruction
- C. Non-disclosure agreement
- D. Shredding/drilling
Answer: B
Explanation:
When disposing of e-waste, it is important to ensure that the data on the equipment is securely destroyed and that the disposal process complies with environmental regulations.
Non-disclosure agreement: Relates to confidentiality, not disposal.
Certification of destruction: The correct document verifying that the equipment has been disposed of in accordance with regulations and standards, ensuring data is irretrievably destroyed.
Low-level formatting: A method to wipe data but does not guarantee compliance with e-waste disposal regulations.
Shredding/drilling: Physical destruction methods that might be used, but certification of destruction is the documentation needed.
NEW QUESTION # 177
An organization implemented a method of wireless security that requires both a user and the user's computer to be in specific managed groups on the server in order to connect to Wi-Fi. Which of the following wireless security methods BEST describes what this organization implemented?
- A. AES
- B. TKIP
- C. WPA2
- D. RADIUS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
RADIUS stands for Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service and it is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. RADIUS can be used to implement a method of wireless security that requires both a user and the user's computer to be in specific managed groups on the server in order to connect to Wi-Fi. This is also known as 802.1X authentication or EAP-TLS authentication
NEW QUESTION # 178
A user takes a work-issued laptop home for the first time. When the user attempts to browse any website on the home internet, the user receives the following error:
"This site cannot be reached."
A technician from work confirms that the static IP that was set up on the machine was changed back to DHCP. Which of the following needs to be corrected?
- A. VLAN
- B. DNS
- C. HTTPS
- D. SMTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The error "This site cannot be reached" often indicates a problem with DNS (Domain Name System) resolution, where the browser is unable to translate a website's domain name into its corresponding IP address. Since the laptop was set to use DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) at home, it's possible that it's not receiving the correct DNS server information from the home network, or the DNS servers it was using at work are not accessible from the home network.
* DNS: Checking and possibly correcting the DNS settings to ensure they are appropriate for the home network might resolve the browsing issue. The user can try using public DNS servers like those provided by Google (8.8.8.8 and 8.8.4.4) or Cloudflare (1.1.1.1) if the default DNS servers provided by the home ISP are not working properly.
HTTPS (A) is a protocol for secure communication over a computer network but is not something that needs to be configured on the user's end to solve this type of issue. VLAN (B) stands for Virtual Local Area Network and is more related to network segmentation and management within larger networks, not typically applicable to home internet issues. SMTP (D) stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is used for sending emails, not for general web browsing issues.
NEW QUESTION # 179
A user's corporate phone was stolen, and the device contains company trade secrets. Which of the following technologies should be implemented to mitigate this risk? (Select TWO).
- A. Global Positioning System
- B. Firewall
- C. Antivirus
- D. Device encryption
- E. Remote backup
- F. Remote wipe
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
Remote wipe is a feature that allows data to be deleted from a device or system remotely by an administrator or owner1. It is used to protect data from being compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or changed hands1. Device encryption is a feature that helps protect the data on a device by making it unreadable to unauthorized users2. It requires a key or a password to access the data2. Both features can help mitigate the risk of losing company trade secrets if a corporate phone is stolen.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A customer calls a service support center and begins yelling at a technician about a feature for a product that is not working to the customer's satisfaction. This feature is not supported by the service support center and requires a field technician to troubleshoot. The customer continues to demand service. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the support center representative to take?
- A. Respond that the issue is something the customer should be able to fix.
- B. Inform the customer that the issue is not within the scope of this department.
- C. Ask the customer to explain the issue and then try to fix it independently.
- D. Apologize to the customer and escalate the issue to a manager.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Apologizing to the customer and escalating the issue to a manager is the best course of action for the support center representative to take. This shows empathy and professionalism and allows the manager to handle the situation and provide the appropriate service or resolution for the customer.
NEW QUESTION # 181
The calendar application on an employee's smartphone is experiencing frequent crashes, and the smartphone has become unresponsive. Which of the following should a technician do first to resolve the issue?
- A. Reinstall the application on the smartphone.
- B. Update the smartphone's OS.
- C. Reboot the smartphone.
- D. Reset the smartphone to factory settings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Rebooting the smartphone is the first and simplest step to resolve the issue of frequent crashes and unresponsiveness. Rebooting clears the memory, closes the background apps, and refreshes the system. It can also fix minor glitches and bugs that may cause the calendar app or the smartphone to malfunction12. The other options are either too drastic or unnecessary. Reinstalling the application may not solve the problem if the issue is with the smartphone itself. Updating the smartphone's OS may not be possible or helpful if the device is unresponsive or incompatible. Resetting the smartphone to factory settings will erase all the data and settings on the device, which should be the last resort.
References: 1 How to Reboot an Android Smartphone or
Tablet(https://www.lifewire.com/reboot-android-smartphone-or-tablet-4127180)2 How to Restart or Shut Down a Smartphone or Tablet(https://www.computerhope.com/issues/ch001912.htm).
NEW QUESTION # 182
A user is receiving repeated pop-up advertising messages while browsing the internet. A malware scan Is unable to locate the source of an infection. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
- A. Browser plug-ins
- B. Windows updates
- C. Certificate store
- D. DNS settings
Answer: A
Explanation:
Browser plug-ins are software components that add functionality to a web browser, such as playing videos, displaying animations, etc. However, some browser plug-ins can also be malicious or compromised and cause unwanted pop-up advertising messages while browsing the internet. A malware scan may not be able to locate the source of the infection if it is hidden in a browser plug-in. Windows updates, DNS settings and certificate store are not likely sources of pop-up advertising messages. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org
/blog/browser-security https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 183
A customer who uses a Linux OS called the help desk to request assistance in locating a missing file. The customer does not know the exact name of the file but can provide a partial file name. Which of the following tools should the technician use? (Select two).
- A. cat
- B. ps
- C. df
- D. dig
- E. find
- F. grep
- G. top
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
To locate a missing file with only a partial name known, the best tools to use in a Linux environment would be grep and find.
* grep: This command is used to search the contents of files for a specific pattern. While grep itself might not be the first choice for finding file names, it can be combined with other commands (like ls or find) to search within file lists or contents.
* find: This command is used to search for files in a directory hierarchy based on various criteria like
* name, size, modification date, etc. find can be used to search for files by partial name by using wildcards in the search pattern.
cat (A) is used to concatenate and display the content of files. df (B) displays the amount of disk space used and available on filesystems. ps (D) shows information about active processes. dig (E) is used for querying DNS name servers. top (G) displays Linux tasks and system performance information. None of these tools are directly suited for finding files by partial names.
NEW QUESTION # 184
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